John 19.1-16

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Pilate said he was in charge and at least four times he attempted to set Jesus free. But each time he got the same response: Crucify him! Execute him! Kill him!

Why did they want to kill Jesus? Was it really because he claimed to be the Son of God (v7)? Was it because he was a threat to their power, or position or point of view? Or perhaps it was because he actually was teh Son of God.

Pilate does not consider Jesus a threat. He makes him out to be a weak and pitiful figure, but not one who is liable to execution.

But was Pilate really in charge? It looks more as though the Sanhedrin have won the day. Pilate loses the struggle with Caiaphas. At first he seems worried about the crowd getting out of hand. And then he becomes aware of the dangers of dealing with someone who may be divine (v7). But his greatest fear, and the idea which pushes him to have Jesus crucified, is that he may be seen as an enemy of the Emperor (v12).

And yet he claims to have authority over Jesus? Did he really? Jesus said he did. The authority which Pilate had over Jesus was not an authority given to Pilate for that occasion. It was an authority he already had as the Roman Governor. The text of v11 means not that the authority was given to Pilate at that time, but that the opportunity was given to Pilate to exercise his authority over Jesus. That is why, even though Pilate was about to do the wrong thing, the ones who handed Jesus over to Pilate had a greater sin - because they had pursued Jesus and handed him over. Pilate had not sought Jesus out. But now he was in the position of having authority over Jesus. It is as though Jesus is warning Pilate. Pilate now has responsibility to act according to his office.

There are three players in this drama. Caiaphas and Pilate, and God. For God is the one who has put Jesus in the hands of Pilate. Pilate is the one who must make the decisions, but the Sanhedrin and God are both pursing their own objectives.

Is God's sovereignty over-ruling what Caiaphas and Pilate are doing? Certainly there is no suggestion in the text that they are doing anything except following their own decisions. There are no puppets here. So does God need the evil of humans to bring about his Son's death? Is it necessary for the death to happen this way? Or if it is necessary, what kind of necessity is it?

If this is the Word become flesh - the true Man (v5) who is also true God - if the Son of God appears among humans are they capable of accepting him and not rejecting him (Jn 1.10-13)? Was his death a necessity because of the hostility and conflict between humans and God? To say it another way, Why does the Son need to die at all? Part of the answer that is necessary precisely because of this opposition to God, exemplified in the trials of Jesus.

At least here we see the context for Jesus death. Whether his death as an atonement for sin requires the hostility of sinners, we are not told here, but we are told that his death took place in the face of that hostility. Was his death due to Caiaphas, Pilate or God? To all three we say, but the purpose of God was what made his death o benefit to us.

So Jesus comes to the end of his trial. Pilate, speaking more than he knows, points him out as the man (v5) and as the King (v14). The Sanhedrin reject him as their King and claim Caesar as their only king. A short term allegiance, because before this gospel was written they had rebelled against Rome, and in AD 70 Roman troops had stormed the Temple and destroyed it.

But only 10 years after the death of this King, the Roman army invaded Britain. By the time the Roman rule in Britain came to an end 400 years later, a strong church had been established under the shadow of Roman occupation. The King who both Pilate and the Sanhedrin rejected established a kingdom that has long outlasted Rome and now includes people from all the nations of the world.

Pilate was right. This was the King.

Dale Appleby

Who is in charge? John 19.1-16

Isaiah 8.11-22, 1 Cor 1.18-31, John 19.1-16 April 2, 2006